1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. Theshow ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on theSwitch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in theexhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be appliedto the switch?
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
• 802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
• 802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
• 802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame. • 802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
3. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
• All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
• The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
4. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
• SSID
• OFDM
• WEP
• DSSS
5. Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?
• SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
• SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
• SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
• SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
6. Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
• QoS
• routing
• trunking
• VPN
7. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
• S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
• S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
• S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
• S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
• S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
• This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
• This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
• This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
• This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
• This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.
9. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
• S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
• R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
• The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
• Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
10. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
• Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
• Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
• Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
• Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
• Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
• Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
12. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
• A new RSA key pair is created.
• The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
• The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
• The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.
13. Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
• forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
• add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
• forward the frame out Interface3
• discard the frame
• forward the frame out all interfaces
• forward the frame out Interface2
14. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
• It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
• It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
• It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
• It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
• It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.
15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
• 192.168.1.11 /28
• 192.168.1.22 /28
• 192.168.1.33 /28
• 192.168.1.44 /28
• 192.168.1.55 /28
16. Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
• SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
• SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
• SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
• SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
• computer B
• computer B and Router1
• computer C and Router1
• computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
• computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
• computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• The SSH version number is wrong.
• SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
• Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
• The transport input command is configured incorrectly.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
• Cat-A
• Cat-B
• Cat-C
• Cat-D
21. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
• VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
• VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
• VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
• VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005
22. Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
• The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
• Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
• This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
• The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
• When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
23. Which three statements are regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
• requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
• requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
• more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
• requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
• can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
• makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces
24. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)
• S1-Central# reload
• S1-Central# erase flash:
• S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
• S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
• S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
26. Refer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
• The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
• The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
• Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
• Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
• Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
• Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
28. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
• reduced contention for bandwidth
• reduced size of the physical layout
• increased fault tolerance of the network
• elimination of the need for wiring closets
• elimination of the need for layer three functionality
• simplification of management and troubleshooting
29. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
• Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
• A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
• The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
• A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
• Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
• An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.
30. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
• All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
• SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
• VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
• The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.
31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
• AS1 and AS2
• DS1 and DS2
• Gateway and CS1
• Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2
32. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
• Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
• Enable password is configured as cisco.
• All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
• The flash directory contains the IOS image.
• VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
• All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.
33. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
• After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
34. Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
• The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
• The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
• The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
• The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
35. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
• Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
• Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
• Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
• Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
• Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
36. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
• Select the correct VTP mode and version.
• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
• Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.
37. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
• only hosts A and B
• only hosts A, B, and C
• only hosts A, B, C, and D
• only hosts A, B, C, and E
38. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is ?
• The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
• The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
• The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
• To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.
39. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
• This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
• A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
• Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
• Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
• The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.
40. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
• The switch ports are on different VLANs.
• The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
• The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
• A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
• The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
• The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
41. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
• switch A
• switch B
• switch C
• switch D
• switch E
• switch F
42. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
• hub HB1
• switch SW1
• router R1
• switch SW2
• router R2
• switch SW4
43. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
• The network diameter limitation is 9.
• BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
• The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
• The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.
44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
• Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
• No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
• One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
45. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
• disable port security
• make the port operational
• override the default port behavior
• force the port to be a part of a single vlan
46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is regarding the information shown?
• Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
• The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
• A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
• Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs
47. Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
• AID
• SSID
• BSSID
• ESSID
48. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?
• A syslog message will be logged.
• Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
• The incoming frames will be dropped.
• The security violation count will be incremented.
49. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
• client
• root
• server
• transparent
50. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
• Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
• Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
• From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
• Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.
51. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
• Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses
• The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
• The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
• The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
• Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.
52. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
• requires less equipment
• provides improved range
• permits increased data rates
• has a single-input and a single-output
• needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

1. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

discard the frame
forward the frame out port 2
forward the frame out port 3
forward the frame out all ports
***forward the frame out all ports except port 3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table

2.Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?

This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23,the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18
***The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18

3. A new switch is to be added to an existing network in a remote office. The network administrator does not want the technicians in the
remote office to be able to add new VLANs to the switch,but the switch should receive VLAN updates from the VTP domain. Which two steps must be performed to configure VTP on the new switch to meet these conditions?(Choose two.)

Configure an IP address on the new switch
***Configure the existing VTP domain on the new switch
Configure all ports of both switches to access mode
***Configure the new switch as a VTP client
Enable VTP pruning

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?

A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 have been configured with the switchport mode access command
Untagged frames received on ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 will be placed on VLAN 1
***Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured to carry data from multiple VLANs

5. Refer to the exhibit. On which of the devices in this network should routing between VLAns take place?

the core layer devices
the access layer devices
the distribution layer devices
***the core and distribution layer devices

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the displayed commands to configure VLAN 30. What is the result of running
these commands?

VLAN 30 will be added to S1,S2,and S3,but not to S4
VLAN 30 will be pruned from the VLAN database of S3
***VLAN 30 will be added to the VLAN database of S3 but will not be propagated to S4,S2 or S1
VLAN 30 will not be added to the VLAN database of S3 and an error message will be displayed

7. After listening for the presence of a signal on the network media, host A and C transmit data at the same time. In what two ways do
the hosts respond to this situation?(Choose two)
***The hosts transmit a jam signal to ensure that all hosts on the network are aware that a collision has occured
Because they are operating in full-duplex mode, the hosts resume listening for traffic in preparation for sending future messages
Because the hub will temporarily block traffic from one of the hosts, that host will be allowed to transmit once the wire is clear
Hosts A and C are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media for retransmission
***After the backoff eriod of a host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before retransmitting

8. Refer to the exhibit.Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and destination address of 192.168.1.161.
What will the router do with this packet?

***The router will drop the packet
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3

9. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?

The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports
***The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command

10. Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both
switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?

The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches
***The VTP domains are different on both switches
VTP pruning is disabled
VTP v2 is disabled

11. Refer to the exhibit.Both switches are configured with default bridge priority. Which port will act as STP root port if all links are
operating at the same bandwidth?

Fa0/1 interface of S1
Fa0/2 interface of S1
Fa0/1 interface of S2
***Fa0/2 interface of S2

12. Refer to the exhibit. The switch VTY lines have been properly configured, but PC1 is unable to remotely manage the switch. How can
this problem be resolved?

Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch in trunk mode
***Configure a default gateway on the switch
Configure the native VLAN on the switch
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch to allow all VLANs

13. What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?

DSSS
OFDM
***SSID
WPA

14.Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate?(Choose three)

***The switch ports are o different VLANs
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet
***The hosts are configured on different logical networks
***A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network

15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN3. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?

192.168.1.22/28
192.168.1.31/28
192.168.1.32/28
***192.168.1.52/28
192.168.1.63/28

16. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting station collide. What is
the last device to receive the collision?

hub HB1
***switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of
the existing VLANs. Which two sets of commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central ehile leaving
the switch and all its interfaces operational?(Choose two)

S1-Central>enable
S1-Central#reload

S1-Central>enable
S1-Central#erase flash:

S1-Central>enable
S1-Central#delete flash:vlan.dat

***S1-Central>enable
S1-Central#configure terminal
S1-Central(config)#no vlan 2

***S1-Central>enable
S1-Central#configure terminal
S1-Central(config-if)#interface fastethernet 0/1
S1-Central(config-if)#switchport access vlan 3

18. Refer to the exhibit. In what two ways will the router handle VLAN traffic that is received on the trunk?(Choose two)


Traffic to VLAN 1 received by the router interface Fa0/0 will be dropped by the router
***Because interface Fa0/0 requires an iP address, the router will not be able to route between the VLANs
***Packets that are received from network 192.168.20.0/24 will be handled by subinterface Fa0/0.20
The router will use subinterface MAC addersses to identify the VLAN traffic that is received on the physical interface
The router will continue to process traffic from the attached VLANs even if the physical interface goes down

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which two options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown?(Choose two)

Routing between the 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.3.0 networks will not succeed until a routing protocol is configured on the router
***VLANs have not been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design
Trunking has been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces
***An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur

20. Refer to the exhibit. The devices in the network are operational and configured as indicated in the exhibit. However, hosts A and D
cannot ping each other. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The link between the switches is up but not trunked
***The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk
Hosts A and D are configured with IP addresses from different subnets
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 are not allowed on the trunk between the switches

21. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate?(Choose three)

***The switch ports are is on different VLANs
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet
***The hosts are configured on different logical networks
A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN
***The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network

22. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch?(Choose three)

***It is configured in VTP server mode
***STP is automatically enabled
The first VTY line is automatically configured to allow remote connections
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address
***All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1
The enable password is configured as cisco

23. When configuring a router to act as an SSH server, what should be configured before issuing the crypto key generate rsa command?

the security domain name
the VTP domain name
***the IP domain name
the host name

24.Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts about STP can be determined from the displayed output?(Choose two)

***Switch S1 has the lowest configured STP priority in the network
Switch S1 is configured as the root bridge for VLAN1
***Fa0/21 is the root port of switch S1
Fa0/22 is the redundant link
Fa0/24 is considered the best path to the root bridge

25. Refer to the exhibit. VTP pruning is enabled in the VTP domain that is shown. How will switch ST-1 handle Layer 2 broadcast traffic
originating from host A on switch ST-C?

It will be dropped
***It will be forwarded out port Fa0/5 only
It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5 and Fa0/10
It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5, Fa0/10, and Fa0/15

26. Refer to the exhibit. How will switch S2 manage traffic coming from host PC1?

S2 will drop the traffic, unless it is management traffic
S2 will tag the frame with VLAN ID 99 when it forwards it over the trunk link
***S2 will leave the traffic untagged when it forwards it over a trunk link
S2 will tag the traffic with the highest VLAN ID value when it forwards it over the trunk link

27. Which two statements are corect about wireless infrastructure components?(Choose two)

An AP converts the TCP/IP data packets from their 802.11 frame encapsulation format to the 802.3 Ethernet frame format on the
wired Ethernet network
***A wireless AP does not require any physical connection to allow wireless clients to access the Internet
An AP is a layer 2 device, similar to a switch, that provides dediated bandwidth to each connected wireless host
Collisions do not occur between wireless NICs and APs
***The wireless router performs the roles of AP and router

28. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two
pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output?(Choose two)

***The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP versin 1 or 2
There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain
VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch
VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain
***This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain

29. Refer to the exhibit. The switches have been configured as shown. The hosts that are connected to switch 101-2FL are not able to
communicate with the hosts in their corresponding VLANs that are connected to switch 101-3FL. What should be done to fix the problem?

***Configure port Fa0/2 on switch 101-3FL as a static trunk link
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability into the topology
Utilize the switchport trunk allowed vlan all command on switch 101-3FL to permit the VLAN traffic
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces that are used to connect switches 101-2FL and 101-3FL

30. What are three benefits of employing a hierarchical network design?(choose three)

***Hierarchically designed networks can more easily be expanded to suit future needs
***Hierarchical design models enhance existing bandwidth through the use of link aggregation
***The hierarchical model allows for specialized functionality at each layer, simplifying device management
Use of a hierarchical design allows replacement of redundant devices with high-capacity network equipment
A hierarchical design uses firewalls instead of complicated port-based and distribution layer security policies
The hierarchical model allows the use of high-performance switches at all design layers, thus allowing for fully-meshed topology

31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. Howerer, host C is unable to ping host D and
host E is unable to ping host F. What ation should the administrator take to enable this communication?

Include a router in the topology
Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1
Remote the native VLAN from the trunk
***Configure one trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode
Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of S2

32. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLAns. The connected hosts can only access
resources in their own VLAN. What th most scalable and cost effective solution to allow inter-VLAN communication in this network?

Replace S1 with a router that has one FastEthernet interface for each PC
Add a second switch and divide the PCs so that each VLAN is connected to is own switch
***Configure a router with two subinterfaces on one of its FastEthernet ports and connect it to S1 using a trunk link
Connect a router to a port on S1 and assign the IP address of VLAN1 to the connecting router interface

33. Refer to the exhibit. How is port Gi1/1 on SwT-A functioning in the spanning-tree topology?

***It is sending and receiving data frames
It is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames
It is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives
It is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data

34. What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model?(Choose two)

***Each subinterface should be configured with its own Ip address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment
***The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch
The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs
Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router
The router should be configured as the VTP server

35. Refer to the exhibit. Sw-T has been configured with a single trunking interface. Which VLANs will be allowed across the trunk?

Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk
***All configured VLANs will be allowed across the trunk
Only the native VLAN wil be allowed across the trunk
Only the the management and native VLANs will be allowed across the trunk
Only VLANs that are configured on the VTP server in the domain will be allowed across the trunk

36. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly urchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2
so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?

Disable VTP pruning on SW2
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode
***Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number

37. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is properly configured for router on a stick inter-VLAN routing, but PC1 is unable to ping PC2. What
needs to be one to resolve the problem?

Rename VLAN1
Connect one more port of S1 to R1
***Configure the Fa0/1 port of S1 as trunk port
Move the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to another VLAN

38. Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request it sent by computer 5.
Which device or devices will receive this message?

only computer 4
***computer 3 and RTR-A
computer 4 and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A
all of the computers and the router

39. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B attempt to transmit a frame at the same time and a collision occurs. When will host D be able to transmit?

***immediately
after sending its jam signal
after host A and host B have comleted transmission
after the jam signal clears and its backoff delay expires

40. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections.
How should the network administrator change the displayed confoguration to satisfy the requirement?

Use SSH version 1
Reconfigure the RSA key
Configure SSH on a different line
***Modify the transport input command

41. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?

WEP identifies the wireless LAN
WEP allows the access point to inform clients to its presence
WEP translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names
***WEP encrypt data between the wireless client and the access point
WEP ensures that only authenticated users are allowed acces to the WLAN
WEP translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address

42. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches?(Choose two)

A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2
***A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4
***An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, Switch3
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, Switch4

43. After unpacking a new Linksys WRT300N wireless multifunction device, a user needs to change the default administrator password
and make other configuration changes. What must the user doto access the device in order to make these changes?

Use a wireless client to associate with the WRT300N and then open a HyperTerminal sssion with the device
Establish a wired connection with the device and then reboot the attached computer to launch the configuration software
***Establish a wired connection from a computer in the same IP subnet as the WRT300N and enter the default IP address of the device into a web browser on the computer
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer that is connected to the WRT300N so that the computer and the WRT300N exist on the same network. Then reboot computer to establish a connection

44. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?

Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
***Cat-D

45. Which statements correctly describes the function of a Layer 2 switch?

***It performs switching and filtering based on the destination network layer address
It automatically uses STP to prevent switching loops in redundant topologies
It uses VTP to allow data from multiple VLANs to travel across a single link
It routes packets between different LAN segments



46. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol?(Choose two)

***It only used at Layer 2
It is configured on routers
***It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies
It limits the number of valid MAC addresses allowed on a port
It allows VLAN information to propagate to other switches in the network

47. Which statement correctly describes the spanning-tree path cost?

It is calculated based on the total number of switches connected in a loop
It is calculated based on the utilization of all the switches along a given path
***It is calculated based on the bridge priority of the switches along a given path
It is calculated based on the sum of the port cost value, determited by link speed, for each switch port along a given path

48. What is the purpose of VLAN trunking?

It improves network performance by reducing broadcast traffic
It select the best path to transmit data in a switched network
***It carries the traffic of multiple VLANs through a single link
It avoids spanning tree loops in a switched network

49. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?

to activate port Fa0/10
***to make the port a member of VLAN 30
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10

50. Refer to the exhibit. Router R-West and switch S-West1 are connected via a single ethernet cable between the router interface fa0/0 and the switch interface fa0/1. The router and switch have been configured with the commands that are displayed in the exhibit. The network administrator enters the show interfaces trunk command and receives the output as shown. What is the cause of the "not-trunking" status for switch port Fa0/1?

The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to
use it
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements
necessary to form a trunk
***Because the router does not support Dynamic Trunking Protocol,
the trunk has not been established
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the
dynamic desirable option for Dynamic Trunking Protocol to
establish a trunk

1. Which two statements describe factors that influence the layout of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• Proposal layouts are required to use sans serif typefaces.
• A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP.
• A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.
• The software that is used to create the proposal dictates the proposal layouts.
• Proposal layouts are required to use a format that is designed by the network engineer.

2 . What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• project scope summary
• high-level implementation plan
• quotes for all needed equipment
• technical requirements for the design
• emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer

3. Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and addressing for the planned network?
• logical design
• physical design
• executive summary
• implementation plan
• network requirements

4. Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?
• The incorrect model switches were ordered.
• There is no customer signoff for task completion.
• New requirements are identified after implementation begins.
• The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.

5. A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center. No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?
• a new installation
• a fork-lift installation
• a phased installation
• a green field installation

6. What service is provided Cisco standard warranty?
• software application maintenance
• replacement of defected hardware
• next business day delivery of replacement parts
• access to the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) 24 hours a day, 7 days a week

7. An upgraded version of the Cisco IOS has been purchased. However, the CD arrived damaged. How will this loss be covered?
• a hardware warranty
• a software warranty
• the Cisco SMARTnet Service
• an additional service contract

8. A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account manager take?
• Cancel the order for the new edge router.
• Work with designer to redesign the branch network.
• Instruct the technician to complete the install of the router at on the date in the contract.
• Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the
• project completion date.

9. NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager?(Choose two.)
• the project scope
• the bill-of-material
• the project timeline
• the terms and conditions
• the business goals of the customer
• the evaluation of the current network

10. The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?
• the preparation of the business case
• the prioritizing of the technical goals
• the characterization of the existing network
• the implementation of the approved design

11.The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project? (Choose two.)
• plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new equipment is delivered
• eliminate redundancy in the design to reduce the amount of equipment that is needed
• renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay
• delay the installation of the security devices and controllers until a later time
• redesign the network to use only readily available equipment and software

12. AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21 hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration. How should the implementation scheduling be handled
• Defer the software upgrades. Use the Saturday window to perform the hardware installation. Use the Sunday window to perform the logical testing.
• Coordinate and publish a separate four-hour downtime during Friday to perform the complete switch installation and testing process. Use the Saturday and Sunday windows to correct any outage problems after the Friday window.
• Coordinate and publish two, four-hour downtimes incorporating the published Saturday and Sunday windows. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working
correctly with the old software. Use the Sunday window as a fallback scheduling period if there re problems necessitating backing out of the Saturday window.
• Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This ill allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working orrectly with the old software.

13. ncluded in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router, Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM to implement this request? (Choose two.)
• DNS server
• LAN switch
• wireless NICs
• DHCP server
• wireless access points

14. A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet Service? (Choose two.)
• signature file updates
• technical support from TAC
• maintenance releases for OS
• software application major releases
• software application maintenance and minor releases

15. A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty? (Choose two.)
• access to TAC
• replacement of defective physical media
• advanced replacement of hardware parts
• access to a renewable standard warranty contract
• under normal use, replacement of defective hardware

16. Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders? (Choose two.)
• customers
• licensing boards
• cabling contractors
• internal management
• project implementation team

17. What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer? (Choose two.)
• Use all capital letters on words and phrases when possible for added emphasis.
• Provide varied background graphics to enhance viewer interest.
• Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.
• Change fonts frequently to denote differences in subject matter.
• Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.

18. In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a
• networking company creates the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this section? (Choose two.)
• cost summary
• installation steps
• change order procedures
• problem resolution process
• maintenance contract quotation

19. Which two items will a systems engineer include in an implementation plan? (Choose two.)
• references to design documents
• the business goals of the customer
• diagrams of the existing traffic flows
• the steps to install and test the network
• cost of each network device and component

20. Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?
• A phased installation generally takes less time and expense than a green-field installation.
• A phased installation is not suitable for large, multi-site network installations or upgrades.
• A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user services.
• A phased installation involves building an entire replacement network and migrating users over to it.

1. Which mechanism is used to create a floating static route?
• administrative distance
• cost
• hop count
• passive interface

2. IPSec operates at which layer of the OSI model?
• application
• network
• datalink
• transport

3. Which is true regarding Frame Relay LMI?
• There are three LMI types standardized by ANSI, ITU-T, and Cisco.
• Routers at each end of a Frame Relay virtual circuit must always use the same LMI type.
• The LMI type must be manually configured.
• The only function of LMI is to verify the connection between the router and the Frame Relay switch.

4. Which statement identifies the IP address design for subinterfaces that are configured for a Frame Relay network?
• Multipoint configurations require the IP address of each subinterface on each router to be in its own subnet.
• Multipoint configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.
• Multipoint configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.

5. Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)
• 3DES
• AES
• Diffie-Hellman
• DES
• ESP
• SHA

6. Which flag is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the receiving station that congestion was experienced?
• BECN
• DE
• FECN
• FCS

7. Refer to the exhibit. The complete configuration of a Frame Relay interface on the Chicago router is shown. How does the Chicago router know which DLCI is mapped to the IP address of the remote router?
• DE
• CIR
• FECN
• Inverse ARP

8. What statement correctly defines the purpose of the split horizon rule?
• marks the route unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers
• prevents routers from advertising a network through the interface from which the update came
• prevents routers from accepting higher cost routes to networks previously marked as inaccessible before the timer expires
• limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

9. Which PVC status suggests that the router recognizes the DLCI configured on its interface as being present on the Frame Relay switch, but the PVC associated with the DLCI is not capable of end-to-end communication?
• active
• deleted
• inactive
• idle

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address?
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 112
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 112

11. A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this status?
• The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.
• The DLCI configured on the CPE device does not match the DLCI.

12. What is one benefit of using a network simulation software package?
• The network design can be tested before it is actually implemented.
• Simulation software packages are quickly updated to support new network technologies and devices.
• Simulated devices have the same features as actual devices, allowing for detection of all potential problems.
• Software packages can simulate all possible network traffic conditions, giving an accurate prediction of network performance.

13. What are two components a network designer considers when planning a VPN? (Choose two.)
• encryption algorithm for privacy and security
• encapsulation protocol to use when creating the VPN tunnel
• switching technology to optimize VPN WAN throughput
• tunneling technology for guarding against data corruption
• routing protocol on the gateway for optimum performance

14. When identifying VPN requirements for endpoint users, what care must be taken to protect the network when remote users log in from unsecured public locations?
• Ensure that the user has VPN client software that allows access to all internal resources.
• Ensure that the VPN user traffic does not slow down internally sourced traffic on the network.
• Ensure that there are no obstacles to hamper the users from accessing all internal resources.
• Ensure that remote users can only access network resources that are appropriate to their job function.

15. Which two components are key elements when implementing a VPN? (Choose two.)
• concentration
• encryption
• prioritization
• compression
• encapsulation

16. What tool can help ease the configuration of VPN servers on routers?
• Cisco SDM
• PIX Firewall
• Cisco VPN Concentrator
• Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances

17. What is used to identify the path to the next frame-relay switch in a Frame Relay network?
• CIR
• DLCI
• FECN
• BECN

18. Which two statements are true regarding VPN security? (Choose two.)
• Users may only establish a VPN connection from secure locations and never from public areas.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN do not have to log in to resources on the network.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN are are considered trusted users on the network.
• Users may establish a VPN connection from unsecure locations such as airports and hotel lobbies.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN should have access to all the resources on the network.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the Orlando office to the DC office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200

20. Two directly connected routers are able to ping each other through the Serial 0/0/0 interfaces. A network administrator changes the encapsulation on one router to PPP, and the other is left at the default value. What statement would appear in the output of the show interfaces command issued on one of the routers?
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down

21. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration shown for R2?
• R2 is configured as the Frame Relay switch.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.

22. A company uses serial interfaces on its border router to connect to branch offices through WAN connections. The security policy dictates that the encapsulation should use PPP with authentication protocol CHAP. Which statement is true about the configuration requirement of CHAP?
• Both the username and password are case sensitive.
• Neither the username nor the password is case sensitive.
• The username is case sensitive but the password is not case sensitive.
• The password is case sensitive but the username is not case sensitive.

23. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.

24. An IP address has been assigned to the S0/0/0 interface of a new Cisco router. The administrator wishes to quickly test basic connectivity with the serial interface of an adjoining Cisco router via the use of the default WAN protocol. Which WAN protocol will be used for this test?
• PPP
• Frame Relay
• DSL
• HDLC
• ATM

25. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.

1. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept?(Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.

2. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

4. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer

5. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.

6. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3

7. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.

8. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• designated

9. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief

10. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlan vlan number command from interface configuration mode
• to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.

12. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator
• a physical topology ma

13. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing

14. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.

16. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have bee added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.

20. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• forwarding
• learning
• listening

1. A network engineer researched whether there are mechanisms available to help with the transition from an IPv4 addressing structure to IPv6. What three options did the engineer find?(Choose three.)
• A protocol translation mechanism allows communication between the IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
• A packet analyzer determines the addressing structure and converts it to the appropriate IPv4 or IPv6 scheme.
• New Core devices that support IPV6 must be purchased.
• A protocol converter changes IPv4 packets into IPv6 packets and vice versa.
• A dual-stack network design allows both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing to be used on all network devices.
• Tunneling allows IPv4 packets to be encapsulated so that they can traverse IPv6 networks and vice versa.

2. When should the command no auto-summary be used?
• with RIP version 1, to enable classless routing
• with RIP version 2, to enable classless routing
• with RIP version 1, when discontigous networks exist
• with RIP version 2, when discontigous networks exist

3. Refer to the exhibit. What must an administrator do on R3 to ensure that update packets are sent with subnet mask information?
• Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# auto-summary
R3(config-router)# no version 2
• Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# version 2
R3(config-router)# no auto-summary
• Change the network statement on R3:
R3(config)# network 10.10.4.0
• Add the command:
R3(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

4. What best describes a discontiguous network?
• combines several classfull networking address
• contains more than one route to a destination
• implements more than one routing protocol
• separated from the rest of the hierarchical group by another network

5. Refer to the exhibit. A company has decided to add a new workgroup. If the subnetting scheme for the network uses contiguous blocks of addresses, what subnet is assigned to WGROUP3?
• 172.16.3.12/29
• 172.16.3.16/29
• 172.16.3.20/29
• 172.16.3.24/29
• 172.16.3.32/29

6. A network administrator is using the 10.0.0.0/8 network for the company. The administrator must create a masking scheme to support 750 users at the main office and 620 users at the remote office. What mask should be assigned to the 10.0.0.0/8 network to preserve the most addresses?
• 255.255.255.0
• /19
• /20
• 255.255.252.0
• /23
• /21

7. What is another format for the IPv6 address 1080:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:1267:01A2?
• 1080::1267:01A2
• 1080:0:0:0:0:1267:01A2
• 1080::0:1267:01A2
• 1080:::::1267.01A2

8. How many bits make up an IPv6 address?
• 32
• 48
• 64
• 128

9. After activating IPv6 traffic forwarding, configuring IPv6 addresses, and globally configure RIPng, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which are passive, and which only receive.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
• Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command.
• RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The IT management has determined that the new subnet for WGROUP3 needs to be broken down into four more subnets. What would the subnet mask be for the four newly created subnets within WGROUP3?
• 255.255.128.0
• 255.255.192.0
• 255.255.224.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0

11. Refer to the exhibit. What is the first usable IP address that can be assigned to the WGROUP3 switch?
• 172.16.50.96/27
• 172.16.50.97/27
• 172.16.50.98/27
• 172.16.50.99/27
• 255.255.255.0

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of router commands is required to turn on unequal-cost load sharing so that RTRA selects the path A-B-E and the lowest cost path A-C-E to the Internet?
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 2
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 1
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 2
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 1

13. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the default EIGRP configuration is running on both routers, which statement is true about Router A reaching the 2.2.2.0/24 network?
• The no auto-summary command needs to be issued to disable automatic summarization.
• The network 2.2.2.0 command needs to be issued to ensure that Router A recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP supports VLSM and automatically recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP does not support VLSM; therefore it cannot be used with discontiguous networks.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants router RTA to send only the summarized route of 10.10.0.0/16 to RTC. Which configuration accomplishes this?
• RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
• RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0

15. What is a good design practice when developing a hierarchical addressing scheme?
• Address the nodes in the Access Layer and work toward the Core Layer.
• Assign addresses to the Core devices before planning the addressing scheme for the server farm.
• Determine where statically configured addressing will be implemented.
• Determine what percentage of devices are wired and what percentage of devices are wireless.

16. A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network. Presently, there are 850 users at the head office, 220 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the 172.17.0.0/16 network?
• 172.17.0.0/20 head office
172.17.1.0/21 manufacturing
172.17.1.0/22 sales
172.17.3.0/26 research
• 172.17.48.0/19 head office
172.17.16.0/20 manufacturing
172.17.48.128/25 sales
172.17.48.0/26 research
• 172.17.0.0/22 head office
172.17.4.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.5.0/24 sales
172.17.6.0/26 research
• 172.17.2.0/22 head office
172.17.3.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.4.0/26 sales
172.17.4.128/25 research

16. How would the routes for networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.15.0/24 be summarized?
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.0.0/22
• 172.16.0.0/24

17. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• dynamic address assignment
• automatic route redistribution
• reduced routing update traffic
• easier management of summarization
• automatic summarization at classfull boundaries

18. Which statement describes MD5 authentication for neighbor authentication?
• All passwords are sent in clear text when neighbors first learn about each other.
• Only the initiating router sends its password using encrypted text when it first discovers a new router.
• All routers send their password using encrypted text only when they first learn of each other.
• All routers send their password using encrypted text each time they exchange update packets.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What are the broadcast addresses for each subnet?
• Admin - 172.16.31.0
QA - 172.16.1.127
Development - 172.16.2.255
Sales - 172.16.32.255
• Admin - 172.16.31.255
QA - 172.16.1.255
Development - 172.16.3.255
Sales - 172.16.63.255
• Admin - 172.16.31.255
QA - 172.16.1.127
Development - 172.16.3.255
Sales - 172.16.63.255
• Admin - 172.16.31.0
QA - 172.16.1.255
Development - 172.16.2.255
Sales - 172.16.32.255

20. Refer to the exhibit. The IT management is adding three VLANs to the wgroup3 switch. The current subnet will be broken down to support 14 hosts for each of the new VLANs. What will the new subnet mask be for these VLANs?
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.248

21. An administrator is configuring IPv6 on a router. The steps that have already been completed are:
1. Activate IPv6 traffic forwarding.
2. Configure IPv6 addresses.
3. Globally configure RIPng.
What is the remaining step to complete the activation of RIPng?
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which are passive, and which only receive.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
• Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

22. Which range includes all available networks in the 192.168.8.0/21 network?
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.14.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.15.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.16.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.17.0/24

23. Which two are best practices for creating a new IP addressing scheme for a network? (Choose two.)
• Plan and allow for significant growth.
• Assign addresses to the access layer before any other layer.
• Plan the entire addressing scheme before assigning any addresses.
• Begin with the access layer network summary addresses and work to the edge.
• Plan the addressing scheme to meet the current minimum requirement needs.
• Implement statically assigned addresses to all hosts in the distribution layer first.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet will provide sufficient addresses for the Production network with minimal waste?
• 172.16.0.192/26
• 172.16.0.192/27
• 172.16.0.224/26
• 172.16.0.160/26
• 172.16.0.144/27

25. A network designer is implementing a new network for a company. The designer is using all new Cisco equipment and has decided to select a hierarchical routing protocol for the network. The designer wishes to minimize traffic from routing updates but also needs fast routing convergence in the event of a topology change. Also, the existing IP addressing scheme requires that the selected protocol support VLSM. Which routing protocol should be chosen?
• BGP
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• OSPF
• EIGRP

1. Which rule should be followed when implementing the security requirements of a network design?
• Always use a common security plan for all business needs.
• As standard practice, lower access restrictions for users if cost is too high.
• Avoid reducing security in order to add additional network capabilities.
• When possible, implement an IDS to protect users from spam.

2. What limitations of the 2960 switch prevent it from providing the services needed in the Distribution layer?
• It is limited to copper connections.
• It does not support QoS.
• It does not support voice VLAN capability.
• It does not support route summarization.

3. When considering converged network designs, it is important to identify appropriate service demands. What is a concern when preparing a network design to fit this environment?
• business data compensation for sensitivity to noise
• location and placement of firewalls
• voice-level quality of service
• security policy requirements

4. Which three design requirements are implemented at the access layer? (Choose three.)
• PoE
• VLANs
• high-density routing
• packet filtering
• rapidly converging routing protocols
• QoS traffic classification and marking

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding how the ISP router filters traffic?
• Traffic from the 64.100.0.1 address to any destination on the Internet is denied.
• Traffic from any source address entering the ISP router interface s0/0/0 is permitted.
• Only traffic with a source address of 64.100.0.1/30 is allowed into the ISP router interface s0/0/0.
• All traffic from the 64.100.0.0/21 network can access the Internet.
• Traffic from any source address can access the 64.100.0.0/21 network.

6. Which two factors should be considered when designing a wireless LAN that provides seamless roaming capabilities? (Choose two.)
• use of a wireless controller to manage IP addressing
• type of routing protocols
• location of existing wired clients
• coverage
• position of MDF

7. What are three features of a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose three.)
• network layer functionality
• redundant power availability
• route summarization
• SNMP
• switch clustering
• inter-VLAN routing

8. A company lists this equipment in their network design:
Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches
One 5500 security appliance firewall
Two Catalyst 6509 switches
Two lightweight access points
Two Catalyst 2960 switches
Which two types of devices would be appropriate to use at the access layer to provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.)
• Catalyst 4503 switches
• Cisco 1841 router
• Catalyst 6509 switches
• lightweight access points
• Catalyst 2960 switches

9. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
• access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

10. Which statement applies to a large network with thousands of nodes?
• Each wireless phone is normally in a separate VLAN for security reasons.
• Multiple firewalls exist throughout the access layer for maximum security protection.
• Firewalls cannot be implemented in the multilayer switches and routers.
• Intrusion detection is more likely to be performed by a separate device rather than integrated into a switch or router

11. on campus. The college currently has only wired network device access. Which two devices must be incorporated into the network design to best accommodate roaming for wireless IP phones?(Choose two.)
• voice VLAN capable switch
• autonomous AP
• PoE switch
• Cisco wireless LAN controller
• 2960 switch with 48 100-Mb ports
• lightweight access points

12. What type of WAN service is Frame Relay?
• dedicated
• cell switched
• packet switched
• circuit switched

13. Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of having two links connected between the two switches shown?
• provides redundancy in case one of the switches fails
• provides connectivity to Switch1 when the link to the server fails
• provides connectivity when one of the connections between the switches fails
• provides power to the other switch when the other switch has lost AC power

14. What is the function of the access layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical internetworking model?
• provides QoS classification and marking
• implements a fast-converging routing protocol
• uses routed interconnections between devices
• aggregates traffic and performs route summarization

15. When applying network security, what security measure should be implemented first?
• securing the network devices
• implementing the firewalls or filters at the enterprise edge
• applying security to resources accessed by internal users
• applying ACLs to the interfaces of the routers in the internal network

16. What characteristic of a network supports high availability?
• VPNs
• high-bandwidth paths to servers
• redundancy
• wireless management

17. What is integrated into a Cisco IP phone to reduce the number of ports needed in the wiring closet?
• hub
• router
• switch
• firewall appliance

18. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
• site survey
• risk assessment
• scalability design
• network protocol analysis

19. Using expandable, modular network devices is a key element of what network design criteria?
• availability
• performance
• scalability
• security

20. What is a primary function of a wireless LAN controller?
• tuning each AP channel for optimal coverage
• providing PoE to the wireless clients
• distributing VLAN information to the wireless clients
• serving as the point of connection between wireless clients and the wired LAN

21. What characteristic in a routing protocol allows it to support the network design criteria for availability?
• CIDR support
• fast convergence
• timed updates
• VLSM suppor

22. A network designer is evaluating the network security implementation for an organization. The designer recommends adding network security devices in front of the server farm, although network security devices have been deployed in the Enterprise Edge for two years. What type of attack can be effectively prevented with this recommendation?
• virus attack
• internal attack
• Internet attack
• phishing attack

23. Refer to the exhibit. The branch office needs constant access to the servers in the enterprise headquarters. Therefore, a backup Frame Relay link is added. A network
• administrator is configuring the routers in the branch office to make sure that when the backup Frame Relay link is used, only the traffic to access the enterprise headquarters is allowed. Which statement is true about the routing configuration on branch office edge routers?
• The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.
• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
• The command ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.

24. An automobile sales company is establishing a new, small sales showroom in a downtown area. To update the inventory database, the new sales office will need a WAN connection to the headquarters that is located in the suburban area. The WAN connection should be around a 4 Mb/s connection. Which WAN service will provide the most economical approach to meet the requirement?
• DSL
• ATM
• T1 line
• Frame Relay

25. A network designer is selecting a WAN technology for connections between the headquarters of an organization and its branch offices. In this context, what is one advantage of choosing Frame Relay over a T1 line?
• more secure
• flexible bandwidth
• shared media across the link
• efficiency with fixed length packet size

1. In addition to the technical considerations, what other major factor is used to evaluate the success of a network installation?
• final project costs
• maintenance costs
• user satisfaction
• statistics describing the performance of network devices

2. Which two network applications are most affected by network congestion and delays? (Choose two.)
• IP telephony
• live video webcasts
• audio file downloads
• online banking services
• file archival and retrieval

3. What two Cisco tools can be used to analyze network application traffic? (Choose two.)
• NBAR
• NetFlow
• AutoQoS
• Wireshark
• Custom Queuing

4. In network design, which technology can be implemented to prioritize traffic based on its importance and technical requirements?
• STP
• QoS
• RTP
• TCP
• VPN

5. What are two characteristics of voice over IP traffic? (Choose two.)
• Voice packets tend to be small.
• Voice packets must be processed in real time.
• Voice packets can effectively use TCP reliability features.
• Voice traffic can survive packet drops and retransmission delays.
• Voice packets must be converted to analog before being sent across the IP network.
• Voice packets automatically receive a higher priority value than other types of packets.

6. What are two things that a network designer can do to determine current and anticipated network traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• Survey end users to obtain customer input.
• Upgrade the Cisco IOS software in all networking devices to optimize traffic flow.
• Limit the analysis to host-to-server traffic because host-to-host traffic is unimportant.
• Run a network traffic analysis to determine which applications are in use and by whom.
• Conduct an inventory of all networking devices that includes model numbers and memory configurations

7. A company that has a traditional telephone system wants to convert to IP telephony. Which two factors should be considered for the design? (Choose two.)
• Digital communications systems have greater noise than analog systems when processing voice traffic.
• Voice-enabled routers or a server must be used for call control and signaling.
• Voice to IP conversions can cause router overhead.
• Power to the phones can be supplied through properly equipped patch panels or switches.
• The cost to combine voice and data VLANs can be a considerable amount.

8. Several web and email servers have recently been installed as part of an enterprise network. The security administrator has been asked to provide a summary of security features that can be implemented to help prevent unauthorized traffic from being sent into or out of sensitive internal networks. Which three features should the security administrator recommend? (Choose three.)
• firewalls
• priority queuing
• access control lists
• intrusion detection systems
• DHCP
• 128-bit WEP

9. The design of an IP telephony system needs to meet the technical requirements to provide a connection to the PSTN as well as provide high-quality voice transmissions using the campus network. Which two elements directly affect the ability of the design to meet these requirements?(Choose two.)
• voice-enabled firewall
• PoE switches and patch panels
• redundant backbone connectivity
• voice-enabled router at the enterprise edge
• separate voice and data VLANs with QoS implemented

10. When implementing VoIP services, which two design considerations should be followed?(Choose two.)
• Confirm that network jitter is minimal.
• Use TCP to reduce delays and dropped packets.
• Establish priority queuing to ensure that large data packets are sent uninterrupted.
• Disable real-time protocols to reduce queuing strategy demands.
• Ensure that packet delays do not exceed 150 ms.

11. What design strategy should be followed when designing a network that uses video on demand?
• implement the appropriate routing protocol to ensure that data segments arrive in order
• implement different QoS queues based on the type of video traffic being distributed
• install servers to store the data in a centrally located server farm
• configure queuing in the core routers to ensure high availability

12. When implementing QoS in traffic queues, what is the first step the designer should take to ensure that traffic is properly prioritized?
• define QoS policies
• define traffic classes
• determine traffic patterns
• identify traffic requirements
• identify networking equipment

13. Which two statements are characteristics of file transfer traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• RTP should be used.
• Traffic is predictable.
• Packets are small in size.
• Transfers are throughput intensive.
• Response-time requirements are low.

14. Which two items can be determined by diagramming internal traffic flow? (Choose two.)
• the type of ISP services needed
• the capabilities of end-user devices
• the areas where network congestion may occur
• the location of VPN servers used to connect teleworkers
• locations where high-bandwidth connections are required

15. Which two traffic types are examples of external traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• A user in the IT department telnets to the core layer router.
• A user in marketing connects to the web server of a competitor.
• A user in the IT department telnets into the access layer switch.
• A user in the services department logs in to a web-based email program.
• A user in accounting connects to an FTP server that is connected to the access layer switch.

16. Which service can be provided by the NetFlow Cisco utility?
• network planning and mapping
• IDS and IPS capabilities
• peak usage times and traffic routing
• network billing and accounting application
• security and user account restrictions
• source and destination UDP port mapping

17. Refer to the exhibit. If ACL 150 identifies only voice traffic from network 192.168.10.0/24 and no other traffic, which queue will voice traffic from other networks use?
• high
• normal
• medium
• default

18. Refer to the exhibit. After configuring QoS, a network administrator issues the command show queueing interface s0/1. What two pieces of information can an administrator learn from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
• queue traffic definitions
• priority list protocol assignments
• type of queuing being implemented
• number of packets placed in each queue
• queuing defaults that have been changed
• queuing has not been applied to this interface

19. An analysis of network protocols reveals that RTP and RTCP are being used. What uses these protocols?
• IDS
• VPN
• WLAN
• firewall
• real-time video

20. A company is considering adding voice and video to the data networks. Which two statements are true if voice and video are added? (Choose two.)
• PoE switches must be purchased.
• More UDP-based traffic flows will be evident.
• Response times will be increased even if QoS is implemented.
• QoS will most likely be implemented to prioritize traffic flows.
• VPNs will most likely be implemented to protect the voice traffic.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the terms on top with its definition on the bottom?
• A=1, B=3, C=2, D=4
• A=2, B=1, C=4, D=3
• A=2, B=4, C=1, D=3
• A=3, B=2, C=4, D=1
• A=4, B=3, C=1, D=2
• A=4, B=2, C=3, D=1

22. A database server is configured to purge all data that is 60 days old. Ten data items that are 60 days old are to be purged. However, there is a failure halfway through the transaction, and the entire transaction is voided. What type of transaction action occurred?
• atomic
• consistent
• durable
• isolated

23. What is the primary goal of QoS?
• classification of traffic
• filtering and queuing voice traffic
• reducing bandwidth requirements
• providing priority service to selected traffic

24. Which technology provides a mechanism for implementing QoS at Layer 2?
• ToS
• CoS
• DSCP
• IP precedence

25. A customer purchases tickets online and pays using a credit card, but the system goes down before the transaction is complete. What transaction type retains a record of this transaction after the system failure so that the customer will still receive the tickets and the credit card account will be debited accordingly?
• atomic
• consistent
• durable
• isolated

26. Refer to the exhibit. The network design documents include requirements to prevent switching loops, to provide link-specific failover, and to provide Layer 3 recovery. Which two protocols would be needed to provide the support? (Choose two.)
• HDLC
• HSRP
• PPP
• RSTP
• VTP

27. network design must minimize latency to support real-time streaming applications. Which two protocols enable control and scalability of the network resources and minimize latency by incorporating QoS mechanisms? (Choose two.)
• RTCP
• HSRP
• RSTP
• RTP
• RPC

28. Which two major differences are associated with IP telephony when compared to traditional telephony that uses a PBX? (Choose two.)
• manages phones centrally
• utilizes centralized call routing
• creates peer-to-peer relationships between phones
• requires a separate infrastructure to support data transfer
• requires significant manual configuration when adding, moving, or changing phones

29. When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve performance? (Choose two.)
• link speed
• delay
• packet routing
• jitter
• packet addressing

1. It is important to identify the details of network sections and devices that will be affected or involved in a new design. This information is included in which section of the Network Design Requirements Document?
• Project Goal
• Project Scope
• Technical Requirements
• Current State of the Network

2. Which two pieces of information does the network designer need to determine if the Cisco IOS of a router requires an upgrade? (Choose two.)
• amount of NVRAM installed
• model number of the router
• number of interfaces and installed HWICs
• installed Cisco IOS feature set and version
• error statistics for each interface

3. Which three pieces of information need to be considered when selecting the proper Cisco IOS version for an upgrade? (Choose three.)
• processor ID
• interface type
• amount of DRAM
• bootstrap version
• device make and model
• size of system flash memory

4. What are two practices a network technician should follow when installing a new interface card in a router? (Choose two.)
• Be sure the interface card faceplate does not touch the chassis rear panel.
• Do not tighten the captive screws until the router has been powered on and recognizes the card.
• Store the blank faceplate inside the card slot to be used if the card is removed.
• Handle the interface card by the edges to avoid static discharge.
• Push the interface card into place until the edge connector is seated securely

5. The new serial interface card for the router arrives and the network technician reads that it is hotswappable. What does this mean?
• The card cannot be installed while the router is powered on because static discharge could damage the card.
• The card cannot be installed until the router is powered off and completely cooled down.
• The card can be installed while the router is powered on if the router supports this technology.
• The card is a replacement and must be installed in the same slot as the card it is replacing.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the command shown to gain knowledge about a poorly documented network. Which two pieces of information can the network administrator discover from the command output? (Choose two.)
• One connected device has router capability.
• The entire network contains a total of five Cisco devices with CDP enabled.
• None of the directly connected network devices have been configured with an IP address.
• Device EDGE_2811 is connected to port Fast Ethernet 0/0 on device C3750-24_MDF.
• Five Cisco devices with CDP enabled are directly connected to device C3750-24_MDF

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?
• The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register.
• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image.
• The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.
• The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration.
• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9 image.

8. An administrator wants to download a new Cisco IOS software version to the local router. Which command performs this task?
• copy tftp flash
• copy flash run
• copy start tftp
• copy flash tftp
• copy tftp start

9. Refer to the exhibit. The top of the output shows the Cisco Feature Navigator regarding a Cisco IOS image that the administrator wants to install on a router. Below it is the output from the show version command for that router. Which statement is true regarding the capacity of the router to run this Cisco IOS image?
• There is not enough DRAM and flash.
• There is enough DRAM and flash.
• There is enough DRAM but not enough flash.
• There is enough flash but not enough DRAM.

10. Which two items are objectives of a WLAN design site survey? (Choose two.)
• identify coverage areas
• determine primary AP locations
• determine what AP equipment should be purchased
• determine how many users will access the WLAN
• identify the bottleneck of the LAN infrastructure

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions improve the weaknesses of the topology shown, assuming that each access layer segment is in its own subnet? (Choose two.)
• Implement redundant links to each server by adding additional NICs.
• Implement a reduntant link from all access layer switches to Admin, Dist, and Server Farm.
• Implement a backup firewall with a link to a secondary ISP and implement a redundant link to the DMZ.
• Implement reduntant links from the existing firewall to all access layer switches.
• Implement redundant links from the DMZ to Admin and Dist.

12. A company is beginning to analyze their new Cisco IOS upgrade requirements. What is one of the router components that a network administrator must consider when selecting a new Cisco IOS version?
• processor type
• storage space in NVRAM
• interfaces and modules to be supported
• compatibility of the bootstrap version with the new Cisco IOS software

13. An employee at a company notices that the wireless signal strength indicator on his laptop fluctuates from good to low. The network administrator decides to do a site survey of that area. Which three factors need to be included in the survey? (Choose three.)
• type and model number of the WNIC of the laptop
• number of users in the area
• location of the AP
• list of MAC addresses filtered by the AP
• number of simultaneous applications running on the laptop of the employee
• location of walls and filing cabinets in the office

14. The new network design for AnyCompany must include support of voice and video traffic. Before upgrading, the network designer checks whether the existing devices can support the new requirements. Which three items does the designer need to check? (Choose three.)
• number of routers and switches owned by AnyCompany
• routers that will support extra ASICs and WWICs
• size of DRAM and flash on each device
• routers that will support HWICs and VWICs
• system bootstrap version on each router and switch
• modules supported on the loaded Cisco IOS

15. A new Cisco IOS version has been copied into flash from a TFTP server. When a reload is issued to upgrade the Cisco IOS, the router freezes part of the way through the loading process. What could be the problem?
• There is enough flash but not enough RAM in the router.
• The new HWIC cards have not been installed yet.
• The TFTP server needs to be present during a reload.
• The new Cisco IOS should have been loaded into NVRAM.
• The new bootstrap version is not compatible with the original version on the router.

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer has no documentation and is attempting to create a logical diagram of the network using the output from show commands. What can be determined from the output shown?
• The device with the ID of ISP is a router on the Internet.
• The attached switch is a VTP server in the Toronto domain.
• The designer cannot telnet to the attached switch.
• The Cisco router IOS supports enterprise-level voice and video technologies.

17. A production router is reloaded and finishes with a Router> prompt. What three facts can be determined? (Choose three.)
• POST occurred normally.
• The boot process was interrupted.
• There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
• A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
• A configuration file was not located in NVRAM or from a TFTP server.
• The router did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.

18. During a site survey, the network designer noticed that people were accessing the company wireless network from the parking lot. What should be done to stop the wireless signal from radiating out into the parking lot?
• change the channel on the wireless AP
• connect the wireless AP to a firewall
• change the type of antenna attached to the AP
• move the wireless AP to a secure VLAN
• move the wireless AP to a port on a Layer 3 switch

19. A network design project includes a review of the existing network. What is the purpose of this phase of the project?
• eliminate the need for a site survey
• shorten the timeframe of the project
• lower the cost of the project by removing redundant links and devices
• determine if the number of applications used within the company can be reduced
• To determine what existing network devices require upgrades to meet the new

20. Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the Cisco IOS file naming convention, what is represented by the value ipvoicek9 listed in the IOS filename?
• version
• file format
• feature set
• hardware platform

21. Refer to the exhibit. What two items can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
• R2 is a Cisco 2600 device.
• R2 has 22 MB of RAM installed.
• The version of the IOS is 12.3.
• Over 8 MB of NVRAM is installed.
• A new 36 MB IOS file can be installed on the device.

22. During a wireless site survey, a consultant is determining the hours of peak usage and the estimated number of users in each location. The consultant is currently in what step of the site survey process?
• the defining of customer requirements
• the identification of coverage areas
• the determining of preliminary AP locations
• the measurement of signal strength

23. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is attempting to install a new version of the IOS on R2. Based on the exhibited output, what are two possible reasons that the transfer failed?(Choose two.)
• The administrator did not enable TFTP on R2.
• There is not enough flash available to store the new IOS.
• Connectivity between R2 and the TFTP server was not verified.
• The copy command was incorrectly entered.
• The administrator did not verify that the TFTP server is running.

24. In which section of the Network Design Requirements document would a network consulting team detail names and IP addresses of important networking components and servers, provide network diagrams and topologies, and define strengths and weaknesses of the network?
• network requirements
• project scope
• overall project goal
• state of the network